SSC · Government Exams

SSC GD Constable Exam Pattern

One objective paper of an hour decides the shortlist and the merit; a run and a measurement decide whether the marks count. Every figure here is from the notice of 1 December 2025.

SSC GD Constable · checked 19 September 2026

SSC GD Constable at a glance, from the official notices

The dates, vacancies and rules below are read on the conducting body’s own site and rewritten as each notice appears. The guide beneath carries the full pattern, syllabus, cut-offs and free mock tests.

19September 2026

Checked 19 September 2026

SSC GD Constable: the facts that matter now

  1. 01

    Notice 1 December 2025; 25,487 tentative vacancies; CBE held 27 April – 31 May 2026; result awaited

    2026 cycle

  2. 02

    Staff Selection Commission for the Ministry of Home Affairs

    Conducted by

  3. 03

    Class 10 pass as on 1 January 2026

    Level

  4. 04

    Constable (GD) in BSF, CISF, CRPF, SSB, ITBP and SSF; Rifleman (GD) in Assam Rifles — Pay Level 3 (₹21,700–69,100)

    Posts

Pattern

SSC GD Constable — SSC GD exam pattern 2026: 80 questions, 160 marks, negative marking and PET/PST

The SSC GD Constable examination has one written stage — a Computer Based Examination of 80 questions in 60 minutes — followed by physical tests, a medical examination and document verification that are all qualifying. There is no second written paper and no interview: the CBE marks, normalised and with any NCC bonus, are the entire merit list.

SSC GD Constable exam pattern 2026. Objective multiple choice; 2 marks per question; 0.25 marks deducted for each wrong answer; no sectional timer.
PartSubjectQuestionsMarksTime
AGeneral Intelligence and Reasoning204060 minutes for the paper (80 minutes for scribe-eligible candidates)
BGeneral Knowledge and General Awareness2040
CElementary Mathematics2040
DEnglish or Hindi2040
Total80160

How the CBE is scored

  • Negative marking is 0.25 per wrong answer — Against 2 for a correct one. A guess between two options gains on average; a three-option guess breaks even; only a four-option blind guess loses.
  • Minimum qualifying marks apply before the shortlist — 30 per cent for UR, 25 for OBC and EWS, 20 for all other categories, judged without NCC bonus.
  • Marks are normalised across shifts — By the Commission’s formula of 2 June 2025; normalised marks are used for the shortlist, the cut-offs and the final merit.
  • NCC bonus is added to normalised marks — 5 per cent of maximum marks (8) for a C certificate, 3 per cent (4.8) for B, 2 per cent (3.2) for A, only if claimed in the application.
  • Languages — English, Hindi and Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu, chosen at application.
Physical Efficiency Test — the race, run before measurement. No appeal against the PET.
CandidatesMaleFemale
All except Ladakh region5 km in 24 minutes1.6 km in 8½ minutes
Ladakh region1.6 km in 7 minutes800 m in 5 minutes
Ex-servicemenExempt from the race; measured for recordExempt from the race; measured for record
Physical Standard Test — height and chest, with the relaxed standards from the notice.
CategoryHeight, maleHeight, femaleChest, male (unexpanded / expansion)
General170 cm157 cm80 cm / 5 cm
Scheduled Tribes162.5 cm150 cm76 cm / 5 cm
ST of North-Eastern states157 cm147.5 cm76 cm / 5 cm
ST of Left-Wing Extremism affected districts160 cm147.5 cm76 cm / 5 cm
Garhwalis, Kumaonis, Dogras, Marathas; candidates of Assam, Himachal Pradesh, J&K and Ladakh165 cm155 cm78 cm / 5 cm

After PET/PST, candidates are shortlisted for the Detailed Medical Examination and document verification, which the CAPFs conduct; a review medical examination is available on appeal. The final result allots forces by merit and preference within state-wise vacancies. In the 2025 cycle, 3,94,121 candidates were shortlisted for PET/PST from the CBE, 95,575 cleared PET/PST, and 53,690 were allocated in the final result of 15 January 2026.

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